Quote Originally Posted by malkin View Post
The cynical me always wonders--if someone gives "in my name" would it not be appropriate for me to get something to use for tax purposes?

Or does the giver get the tax benefit as well?
I'm not a tax lawyer, but AFAIK the IRS doesn't care about sentiment or gestures - only about who owned the money and gave it away (and the best I could find without getting deeper into it than I wanted to on a holiday was a two-year-old article from TurboTax that agrees).